Is John 1:18 translated poorly in the English Standard Bible? - Quora

Answer (1 of 18): In regards to John 1.18, the root of the issue between the KJV and ESV is not in translation, but rather in the underlying Greek texts used to translate each. Simply put, the KJV is translated from different source material than the ESV. So rather than translation, this become

Is the English Standard version of The Bible a good translation? - Quora

Why is it that the word 'God' is translated as 'a god' in John 1:1b and 18b of the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation, and yet the identical construction is rendered as

Why do most modern Bible translations leave out the part of 1 John 5:7? - Quora

Jehovah's Witnesses: why did the NWT change John 1:1 from 'the Word was God' to 'the Word was a God'? - Quora

Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable? - Quora

Why isn't Buddha or any other non-Abrahamic religion mentioned in Abrahamic scriptures? - Quora

What does John 1:1 say in other Bible translations? - Quora

Do you think John 1:18 supports Trinity and Triune God? - Quora

What does it mean to be a child of God (John 1:12-13)? - Quora

Should John 1:18 be translated differently? - Quora

Is “The Message Version” a good Bible translation? - Quora

What does the earliest manuscript for the New Testament look like? - Quora